asdf5599
New member
- Joined
- Apr 22, 2020
- Member Type
- Academic
- Native Language
- Portuguese
- Home Country
- Portugal
- Current Location
- Portugal
Good morning
Today, in my college english class, we were discussing countable and uncountable nouns. Being in a C1+ class, I am really deep in the understanding of the english language, however, we reached a point in where the teacher (in my opinion) wasn't correct. The exercise was - select the right alternative in the following sentences - and the phrase was this one:
- I usually like to have a coffee/coffee before I do anything else in the morning
The teacher stated that the first one - a coffee - was the right answer. I, myself, argued that the second one - coffee - was the correct answer. She explained her choice by saying that "a coffee" eludes to a cup of coffee. I believe it would make more sense if the "cup" was there, not implied. Anyways, I let it slide, even though, I immediately replied by saying that both of them were right, since "coffee" is also correct grammar wise (can be both countable and uncountable). The difference between one another, is that the first one is specifying only one coffee whilst the other is merely declaring the action of going to have coffee. Although, my teacher affirmed that it wasn't correct, therefore where do I stand? Is the first one correct, or is the second one, are they both? Is "coffee" countable or uncountable ? Is it both?
Thank you
Today, in my college english class, we were discussing countable and uncountable nouns. Being in a C1+ class, I am really deep in the understanding of the english language, however, we reached a point in where the teacher (in my opinion) wasn't correct. The exercise was - select the right alternative in the following sentences - and the phrase was this one:
- I usually like to have a coffee/coffee before I do anything else in the morning
The teacher stated that the first one - a coffee - was the right answer. I, myself, argued that the second one - coffee - was the correct answer. She explained her choice by saying that "a coffee" eludes to a cup of coffee. I believe it would make more sense if the "cup" was there, not implied. Anyways, I let it slide, even though, I immediately replied by saying that both of them were right, since "coffee" is also correct grammar wise (can be both countable and uncountable). The difference between one another, is that the first one is specifying only one coffee whilst the other is merely declaring the action of going to have coffee. Although, my teacher affirmed that it wasn't correct, therefore where do I stand? Is the first one correct, or is the second one, are they both? Is "coffee" countable or uncountable ? Is it both?
Thank you
