[Grammar] Declare

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shibli.aftab

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"The government has no difficulty in declaring the law."

"The government has no difficulty in the declaration of the law."

"The government has no difficulty to declare the law."


What's the difference in the above sentence?
 

Raymott

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"The government has no difficulty in declaring the law."

"The government has no difficulty in the declaration of the law."

"The government has no difficulty to declare the law."


What's the difference in the above sentence?
They all mean the same thing, but the third is not grammatical.
 

Rover_KE

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'..has no difficulty' is not followed by an infinitive.
 

emsr2d2

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Why is '..has no difficulty' not followed by an infinitive?

If you're going to ask "Why?" or "Why not?" every time you are told a rule of English grammar, you are never going to get anything done. Get used to this sort of response: It's just the way it is.

I have no difficulty with that. :tick:
I have no difficulty doing that. :tick:
I have no difficulty in doing that. :tick:
I have no difficulty to do that. :cross:
 

5jj

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"The government has no difficulty in declaring the law."

Am I the only one who finds this an unnatural sentence? Governments can pass, impose, uphold, etc, laws, but not normally declare them - unless it's martial law.
 
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emsr2d2

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Y​ou're not alone.
 

Raymott

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"The government has no difficulty in declaring the law."

Am I the only one who finds this an unnatural sentence? Governments can pass, impose, uphold, etc, laws, but not normally declare them - unless it's martial law.
No, but that wasn't the focus of the question. The first two are still grammatical and third not. (Yes, I assumed it meant martial law) ;)
 
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