Everyone has their own taste/tastes.

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October wind

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Everyone has their own taste.
Every has their own tastes.

Which is better, the first one or the second one? I always have trouble deciding which to choose after “everyone has their own.”
 
1. Everyone has their own taste.
2. Everyone has their own tastes.

Which is better, the first one or the second one? I always have trouble deciding which to choose after “everyone has their own.”
In this case, they're both possible. The first uses the uncountable "taste", and we can assume that that taste covers various aspects of life. The second takes each taste (in music, in film, in people, etc) as a singular taste and then adds them together to make a plural.
There are sentences in which only the singular works. For example, "You've got terrible taste" and "That joke was in very bad taste".
 
In this case, they're both possible. The first uses the uncountable "taste", and we can assume that that taste covers various aspects of life. The second takes each taste (in music, in film, in people, etc) as a singular taste and then adds them together to make a plural.
There are sentences in which only the singular works. For example, "You've got terrible taste" and "That joke was in very bad taste".
Thank you very much. What about the word preference? Which is better in this case?

A) Everyone has their own preference.
B) Everyone has their own preferences.
 
It's hard to say. Unlike a real life situation, there is no context.

I would probably say: "Everybody is different." What does that mean? Well, our differences start at birth. Also, we have different life experiences. So you can't expect people to have the same likes and dislikes.
 
Which is better in this case?

A) Everyone has their own preference.
B) Everyone has their own preferences.

There's no better or worse. Understand the different meanings. The plural form means there are two or more. The singular form can mean there's one, or it can have its uncountable sense.
 
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