form of gerund after preposition

[wynnmyintuu]

Which of the following is acceptable or grammatical?
a. "After having attended the meeting, he returned home."
b. "After attending the meeting, he returned home."

 

[Rover_KE]

They are both acceptable and grammatical.

Rover

 

[cubezero3]

They are both acceptable and grammatical.

Rover

Hello, Rover_KE.

Are there any nuances between these two forms, apart from the fact they are written differently? Any situation in which only one form are allowed to be used?

From what I 've gethered so far, they are completely interchangeable. I'd like to hear what you would think of it.

Many thanks

Richard

 

[Rover_KE]

They mean the same to me.

Rover

 

[e2e4]

/A learner/

I'd like to say that I prefer using the perfect participle instead of the gerund in such cases.

The reasons for

1. The perfect participle is ideal for indicating a complete action in the past. The second action took its place immediately after the first one was finished (The past perfect tense doesn't match).
2. The gerund doesn't refer to the past by itself. Using the gerund in the first clause the listener must wait to the end of the second clause to realise that the both actions took their place in the past.

I usually use the present participle instead of the present continuous tense in sentences similar to these ones below

Looking at the mirror I saw an eagle.
Watching a western, I feel good.

The first action was either taking place when the second event happened or the two actions are going in parallel.

My proposal is

Having attended the meeting he returned (to) home.

In my opinion the after is redundant as well in the sentence.

 

[cubezero3]

They mean the same to me.

Rover

Hello, Rover_KE.

I have to clarify this. Sorry, mate.

Can you think of any circumstances in which only one of the forms is possible?

Many thanks

Richard

 

[Rover_KE]

No.