He has twice as many books as I

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Nonverbis

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He has twice as many books as I.

Could you tell me whether this is a grammatically correct sentence? What troubles me is that "I" at the end. I'm not sure whether I should put "I" or "me".

Could you recommend me some book to read on this subject.
 

GoesStation

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Traditional grammarians insist that the subject pronoun "I" is the only correct choice. The overwhelming majority of native English speakers would use the disjunctive* pronoun "me".

Some old-fashioned teachers would mark "me" as wrong.

*Traditional grammarians wouldn't accept the assertion that "me" is a disjunctive pronoun (a pronoun that can function as both subject and object), despite the evidence that nearly all English speakers use it that way.
 

5jj

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Many people say 'me', but, grammatically speaking, it should be 'I' - He has twice as many books as I (have).

(Crossposted)
 

Nonverbis

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Could you recommend something to read on the subject.
 

jutfrank

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If you're looking for this English teacher's advice: Use me. Alternatively, use I do.
 

emsr2d2

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My advice: In an exam, use "I", "I do" or "I have". When casually chatting with native speakers, use "me".
 

PaulMatthews

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He has twice as many books as I.

Could you tell me whether this is a grammatically correct sentence? What troubles me is that "I" at the end. I'm not sure whether I should put "I" or "me".
[1] He has twice as many books as [I__].
[2] He has twice as many books as [me __].

If the pronoun is understood as the subject, as it is here, the choice of case depends on the style.

In formal style [1], the pronoun appears as nominative, just as in the unreduced clause "He has twice as many books as I have".

But informal style has accusative, as in [2], where the missing verb cannot be inserted.

Many speakers would avoid both constructions by retaining the verb, as in the unreduced clause.
 
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