He has twice as many books as I

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Nonverbis

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He has twice as many books as I.

Could you tell me whether this is a grammatically correct sentence? What troubles me is that "I" at the end. I'm not sure whether I should put "I" or "me".

Could you recommend me some book to read on this subject.
 
Traditional grammarians insist that the subject pronoun "I" is the only correct choice. The overwhelming majority of native English speakers would use the disjunctive* pronoun "me".

Some old-fashioned teachers would mark "me" as wrong.

*Traditional grammarians wouldn't accept the assertion that "me" is a disjunctive pronoun (a pronoun that can function as both subject and object), despite the evidence that nearly all English speakers use it that way.
 
Many people say 'me', but, grammatically speaking, it should be 'I' - He has twice as many books as I (have).

(Crossposted)
 
Could you recommend something to read on the subject.
 
If you're looking for this English teacher's advice: Use me. Alternatively, use I do.
 
My advice: In an exam, use "I", "I do" or "I have". When casually chatting with native speakers, use "me".
 
He has twice as many books as I.

Could you tell me whether this is a grammatically correct sentence? What troubles me is that "I" at the end. I'm not sure whether I should put "I" or "me".
[1] He has twice as many books as [I__].
[2] He has twice as many books as [me __].

If the pronoun is understood as the subject, as it is here, the choice of case depends on the style.

In formal style [1], the pronoun appears as nominative, just as in the unreduced clause "He has twice as many books as I have".

But informal style has accusative, as in [2], where the missing verb cannot be inserted.

Many speakers would avoid both constructions by retaining the verb, as in the unreduced clause.
 
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