I’ve read a lot of books recently.

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IlyaTretyakov

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Hello. I was doing exercises in "English Grammar in Use" by Raymond Murphy and I found this sentence "I’ve read a lot of books recently."
Please, help me understand. What does he mean? That he has started, read but not completed a lot of books recently or that has completed a lot of books recently or neither?
I'm asking this because I think "recently" is not such a long period to complete a lot of books.
 
The speaker probably means that he has completed reading the books (from beginning to end) but we don't know that for sure. It's also possible that the speaker has only read parts of those books.

You must make a distinction between what the speaker means (speaker meaning) and what the words in themselves mean (sentence meaning).
 
I think "recently" is not such a long period to complete a lot of books.
That depends on what the speaker has in mind when they mention 'recently'; it also depends on what they have in mind by 'a lot'. These terms are too vague to pin down precisely.
 
Thank you for the replies.
Does "I've been reading a lot of books recently" have another meaning from the original sentence assuming that in the original sentence the speaker means 'only parts of those books'?
 
With neither "I've been reading a lot of books recently" nor "I've read a lot of books recently" can we assume the speaker means 'only parts of those books'.
 
With neither can we assume the speaker means 'only parts of those books'.
Those weren't my words. I assumed so because of
The speaker probably means that he has completed reading the books (from beginning to end) but we don't know that for sure. It's also possible that the speaker has only read parts of those books.
I can't draw a conclusion when native speakers don't agree with each other's statements. Where's the truth?
 
What do you mean? I see no native speakers disagreeing with each other.
 
I said that we cannot assume the speaker means only parts of the books .Jutfrank said it's possible that they have read only parts (though jutfrank also noted that they have probably completed the books.

Jutfrank and I are not disagreeing.
 
I said that we cannot assume the speaker means only parts of the books .Jutfrank said it's possible that they have read only parts (though jutfrank also noted that they have probably completed the books.
I'm not saying it's 100% true, I'm just assuming.
Why we cannot assume so (according to 5jj) if it's possible (according to Jutfrank)?:rolleyes:
 
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I've been reading a lot of books recently.
I've read a lot of books recently.


In the absence of real context, I would assume that the speaker of both of these sentences referred to the reading of the books from beginning to end. Unless we specifically refer to an action not completed (as in I am reading 'War and Peace' at the moment; I have been reading it for three weeks now), this is what we understand when he hear the perfect aspect used of reading a number of books.

So, unless context makes it pretty clear that an incomplete action is being referred to, it is unsafe to assume that the action is incomplete.
 
Thank you. It's really hard for me to digest the information especially about Perfect Continuous (I've always been taught that it's usually unfinished) but I'm trying.
 
I've always been taught that it's usually unfinished
Usually is not always.

The present perfect continuous is often used for situations that started in the past and are still happening at the moment of speaking.
It has been raining for two hours (and it is still raining now).

Often is not always.

It can also be used for situations that started in the past that, although not yet completed, are not actually happening at the moment of speaking.
I have been writing my grammar for ten years now. I hope to finish it by the end of next year.

It can also be used for situations that started in the past and are now completed, though they have some sort if effect on the present.
Oh, this bath is wonderfully relaxing. I have been working in the garden all day, and I am exhausted.
 
I've been reading a lot of books recently.
I've read a lot of books recently.


In the absence of real context, I would assume that the speaker of both of these sentences referred to the reading of the books from beginning to end. Unless we specifically refer to an action not completed (as in I am reading 'War and Peace' at the moment; I have been reading it for three weeks now), this is what we understand when he hear the perfect aspect used of reading a number of books.

So, unless context makes it pretty clear that an incomplete action is being referred to, it is unsafe to assume that the action is incomplete.
If both of these sentences refer to the reading of the books from beginning to end (according to your words) why do we use Present Perfect Continuous at all?

I thought this is the main difference.
I've read a lot of books recently. (the books are likely to have been finished)
I've been reading a lot of books recently. (the books are likely not to have been finished)

As in this example:
He has been writing a book on the history of Pisa. (He is still in the process of writing it.)
vs
He has written a book on the history of Pisa. (You can buy it. It's done.)
 
If both of these sentences refer to the reading of the books from beginning to end (according to your words) why do we use Present Perfect Continuous at all?

The continuous aspect (in all tenses) often lays emphasis on the limited duration of the situation.
I've been reading a lot of books recently. (the books are likely not to have been finished)
Our sense of what we normally do with books suggests that we are not like to have started to read them and continue to read them. It's not impossible, but if that is the case, we are more like to state this more clearly : I've started a lot of books recently.
He has been writing a book on the history of Pisa. (He is still in the process of writing it.)
vs
He has written a book on the history of Pisa. (You can buy it. It's done.)
Fine. Not all uses of the two forms can be explained in that way, (Incidentally, the second does not, in itself, say that it has been published and can be bought.)
 
He has been writing a book on the history of Pisa. (He is still in the process of writing it.)
vs
He has written a book on the history of Pisa. (You can buy it. It's done.)

Well, the bracketed parts are assumptions at best. Whether he is in fact still in the process of writing it, and whether you can in fact buy it in the shops are really nothing more than implications. The words themselves (the sentence meaning) don't tell us one way or the other. I think this is what you're struggling with.
 
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