I have been to or I have been in?

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indifferent

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I have been to Britain... (eg. three times). But what about time period? Is there the same rule ( ,,I have been to Britain for two days'' or ,, I have been in Britain for two days''?
 
Which of the sentences is the most appropriate:
1. "I have been to a scholarschip in England for 2 years.''
2. ''.................on...................in..............................
3. ''.................to....................to.............................
4.''...................on...................to...........................
 
I am not a teacher.

'Been to' is dynamic and means gone/travelled to so it would be followed by the number of times. 'I have been to Britain twice.'

'Been in' is stative and is followed by a duration. 'I have been in Britain twice.'
 
1. "I have been to a scholarschip in England for 2 years.''
I have been on a scholarship in England for two years.

'Been in' is stative and is followed by a duration. 'I have been in Britain twice.'
Is 'twice' a duration? Should it be 'two days'?

Not a teacher.
 
Last edited:
No, "twice" is not a duration. It defines how many times something has happened.

I have been in Britain for two days = I arrived in Britain two days ago and I am still here.
I have been to Britain twice = In my life, I have visited Britain on two separate occasions (duration of visit not specified)

I find "I have been in Britain twice" rather unnatural.
 
If the speaker is no longer in Britain, it should be 'I was in Britain for two days'.

Not a teacher.
 
Is 'twice' a duration? Should it be 'two days'?

Hello, Matthew.:)

Yes, it should.
It is very likely that Roman copied and pasted the sentence ('I have been in Britain twice') and forgot to change the 'twice' to something else.

:)
 
I have no problem with "I have been in Britain twice".
 
It is very likely that Roman copied and pasted the sentence ('I have been in Britain twice') and forgot to change the 'twice' to something else.
:)

Very perceptive of you. That's exactly what happened.
 
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