I haven't. Have you?

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It could be used for both, because both questions contain the word "have".

Have you got a book?
No, I haven't.

Do you have a book?
No, I haven't.

However, "No, I don't" is the more likely response to "Do you have a book?"
Not a teacher

I apologize for the intrusion, but I'm surprised by your answer, emsr2d2.

To be clear, I'm not trying to insinuate that you're wrong, or disparage you; I'm just looking for an answer because I might want to reconsider how I feel about this particular example.

I'm going to present how I currently feel about it so as you may judge my way of thinking. Please, tell me what you think, and whether you agree with me.

I was taught the auxiliary/modal verb used in the question and the auxiliary/modal verb used in the answer must agree with each other unless you mean to change the tense/aspect in your answer to modify/specify the circumstances, different from those in the original question you've been asked, or want to correct the person who's asked the question because their original sentence was ungrammatical.

A: Do you believe in Santa Claus?
B: I did, as a kid.
A: Did you ever eat an octopus?
B: No, I haven't


The exchange...
A: Do you have a book?
B: Yes, I have.
...sounds erroneous to me because the auxiliaries don't agree.

In case of "Do you have...", I see have as the main verb, and do as the auxiliary. The answer should use the auxiliary, not the main verb.

In other words, the exchange...
A: Do you have a book?
B: Yes, I have.
...sounds about as erroneous to me as...
A: Do you like ice cream?
B: Yes, I like.
...and, to be fair, I'm surprised you do consider it correct, even if less common/inadvisable to use.

I would use "Yes, I have"/"No, I haven't" only if the auxiliary in the original question was the verb have. e.g., "Have you got...?"/"Have you had...?"


If answers to a sentence with the main verb have can be formed that way ("Do you have...?" → "Yes, I have"), why?
Is it just that have is a special case, an exception?
Does it have anything to do with the fact that "I haven't a book"/"Have you a book?" used to be much more popular, and it still lingers to this day expressing itself in cases such as this one?

Do you really think it's perfectly acceptable in modern English?
Do you think learners should emulate this?
 
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I don't know how many other ways I can express the fact that "Have you a book?" and "I haven't a book" are grammatically correct but sound very old-fashioned.
 
Can you not work out which sentences refer to repeated/habitual actions in 7?

No, I can't. Because of the words 'ever' and 'usually'. :shock: If it says 'I have a headache' it means now not usually and in 'we don't have any beer' again I understand it as 'now' not 'usually'.
 
. . . If answers to a sentence with the main verb have can be formed that way ("Do you have...?" → "Yes, I do"), why?
Is it just that have is a special case, an exception?
Does it have anything to do with the fact that "I haven't a book"/"Have you a book?" used to be much more popular, and it still lingers to this day expressing itself in cases such as this one?

Do you really think it's perfectly acceptable in modern English?
Do you think learners should emulate this?
Here's another way to look at it.

In conversational English (at least here in the US), we usually say, "Yes, I do," "No, I don't" or "I don't know."

As you can see, the verb we're defaulting to is do, not have. There's nothing alarming about choosing have, but if you do, it will have a some cobwebs clinging to it.

Sometimes we do use have and haven't to answer questions, but usually those are fixed phrases, like "I haven't the foggiest idea."

(And notice that the word do in that last sentence is not needed. It's there only for emphasis.)
 
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Could anyone answer my question in #24 please?:-(
 
Could anyone answer my question in #24 please?:-(
Again, not a teacher
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There are many subtle differences between have and have got, and many not-so-subtle differences, too. One of them is the stative/action nature of the verb.

I've come across this in many textbooks - have got cannot be used as an action verb. Have can be used as either an action verb or a stative verb.

Consider using the continuous aspect to communicate the immediateness of the action (e.g., "I'm eating" vs "I eat"). This can happen for action verbs, such as eat, but if you try to do that with stative verbs, such as have, it completely changes the meaning (e.g., "I'm having" vs "I have").

"I'm having" functions as an action verb; "I have" functions as a stative verb. If you want to communicate immediateness for the verb have, you need contextual clues or the help of additional words such as "right now" or "at the moment". The reverse is also true - if you want to communicate habituality for the verb have, you need contextual clues or the help of additional words such as "usually" or "ever".

What the textbook you've given a photo of says is simply that regardless of what contextual clues or helping words you use, have got is less likely to be used for habitual states.

In other words, you can use "I have" for either "now" or "usually", but "I have got" is much more likely to be used only for "now".
 
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. . . In other words, you can use "I have" for either "now" or "usually", but "I have got" is much more likely to be used only for "now".
And in the US, have got is used much less often than in the UK. We usually just say have, except when got will add emphasis:

- I've got to get tickets to the Indy 500!
- You've got to be kidding!
 
And in the US, have got is used much less often than in the UK. We usually just say have, except when got will add emphasis:

- I've got to get tickets to the Indy 500!
- You've got to be kidding!

And bear in mind that "have got to + verb" (and "have to + verb") mean "must", but "have got + noun" means "have"!
 
No, I can't. Because of the words 'ever' and 'usually'. :shock: If it says 'I have a headache' it means now not usually and in 'we don't have any beer' again I understand it as 'now' not 'usually'.

When referring to a regular/habitual fact/action, some kind of time reference might well be included.

It's really odd. Every Tuesday, she has a headache. (Regular)
She has a headache. (Now)

In the case of the beer example, "have" might not be the best choice of verb when talking about regular facts.

Have you got any beer?
No, sorry, we don't have any beer. (Now)

Have you got any beer?
Sorry, we don't sell beer. (Statement of general/habitual fact)
 
When referring to a regular/habitual fact/action, some kind of time reference might well be included.

It's really odd. Every Tuesday, she has a headache. (Regular)
She has a headache. (Now)

In the case of the beer example, "have" might not be the best choice of verb when talking about regular facts.

Have you got any beer?
No, sorry, we don't have any beer. (Now)

Have you got any beer?
Sorry, we don't sell beer. (Statement of general/habitual fact)

I don't understand their use of 'ever'. It's neither habitual nor happening at the moment of speaking.(Now).
 
I don't understand their use of 'ever'. It's neither habitual nor happening at the moment of speaking.(Now).
I don't see ever in Ems's post.

But this might help:

- Never = not ever.

- We don't ever = we never.​

Do you ever? No, I never.
 
I don't see ever in Ems's post.

But this might help:

- Never = not ever.

- We don't ever = we never.​

Do you ever? No, I never.

No, not in the previous post but in the book's example.
 
Is this the line you're wondering about? "Do you ever have time to go to London?"

Next time, just type out the line. You'll get a faster answer than if we have to hunt for it.

ever = at any time
 
Is this the line you're wondering about? "Do you ever have time to go to London?"

Next time, just type out the line. You'll get a faster answer than if we have to hunt for it.

ever = at any time

OK. Thank you. Is this question asking about a habitual activity?
 
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