I haven't replaced (BrE) vs. I didn't replace (AmE)

EngLearner

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Suppose John is a plumber who fixes something in Peter's bathroom and then comes up to Peter to get paid before leaving.

As far as I know, in American English the plumber would say in this context: "I repaired the sink for you. That'll be $200. I'm going now." He would use the simple past "I repaired" if he doesn't expect to do anything else in Peter's house.

In British English, the plumber would say "I've repaired the sink for you. That'll be $200. I'm going now." Even though he doesn't expect to do anything else, he would still use the present perfect "I've repaired" to emphasize the present result of his work - the sink is now in the state "repaired."

I wonder if it works the same way if there are two verbs in a sentence (the first one in the negative aspect and the second one in the positive):

1. Peter, I didn't replace the hot water valve, but I repaired the sink for you, so it'll be just $200 for the sink. I'm going now.

2. Peter, I haven't replaced the hot water valve, but I've repaired the sink for you, so it'll be just $200 for the sink. I'm going now.


So, in the context given, #1 is American English, whereas #2 is British English. Right? Again, please assume that the plumber doesn't expect to return to Peter's house to replace the hot water valve.
 

EngLearner

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Suppose John is a plumber who fixes something in Peter's bathroom and then comes up to Peter to get paid before leaving.
3. Peter, I've repaired the sink for you, but I didn't replace the hot water valve, so it'll be just $200 for the sink. I'm going now.

Would it be natural to use the present perfect "have repaired" and then follow it with the simple past "didn't replace" (as in version #3)?
 

jutfrank

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Would it be natural to use the present perfect "have repaired" and then follow it with the simple past "didn't replace" (as in version #3)?

First of all, it has nothing really to do with being 'natural'.

I've repaired the sink but I haven't replaced the hot water valve.

This counts as a single coherent logical thought. Yes, it consists of two actions but they're logically connected in some way. The thought is expressed in a particular aspect (present perfect). There's no apparent reason to change the aspect for the second clause since both clauses are cast in the same way. If a native speaker did change the aspect for the second clause, then okay, you may attempt to explain why he did so, but you can't really get inside someone's mind so you'll never really know.

If you're asking as a learner what you should do, then I'd say: Retain the same aspect for both clauses because you're probably thinking about both actions in the same way.
 
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