I know who painted all (of) these. / I have all (of) ours right here.

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Michaelll

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Raymond Murphy in his book says that you have to use 'of' after a determiner (some, most, any, etc.) if you see that it is followed by 1) 'the' / 2/4) a demonstrative determiner/pronoun (this, that, these, those) / 3) a possessive determiner (my, our, John's, etc.) / 5) a possessive pronoun (mine, ours, John's, etc.) / 6) an object pronoun (us, them, it, etc.), but in some cases you don't need 'of' after all, both and half.

I've figured that when all, both or half is followed by a determiner, we do not need 'of' = it's optional.
  • 1) all (of) the people ('the' is a determiner which is followed by a noun = 'of' is optional)
  • 2) all (of) these people ('these' is a demonstrative determiner which is followed by a noun = 'of' is optional)
  • 3) all (of) our people ('our' is a possessive determiner which is followed by a noun = 'of' is optional)
So, my question is: do we need 'of' after all, both or half if it is followed by a pronoun?
  • 4) all (of) these ('these' is a demonstrative pronoun = it isn't followed by a noun)
    I know who painted all (of) these. = Is "of" optional or necessary here?
  • 5) all (of) ours ('ours' is a possessive pronoun = it isn't followed by a noun)
    I have all (of) ours right here. = Is "of" optional or necessary here?
  • 6) all (of) them ('them' is an object pronoun = it isn't followed by a noun)
    Your task is to find all (of) them. = Is "of" optional or necessary here? (I know we can say 'them all')
 
I'd consider them optional in all three cases, although I personally am probably more likely to include 'on' with #6.
 
I'd consider them optional in all three cases, although I personally am probably more likely to include 'of' with #6.
Yeah, I also have that feeling that in 6 it requires 'of'. Thanks!

As for 5, do you think 'of' is optional there (with all, both and half)?
  • I have all ours right here.
  • I have all of ours right here.
Are these two both fine and mean the same thing?
 
Are these two both fine and mean the same thing?
Are these two both OK and do they mean the same thing?

We don't use fine in this sense in negative or interrogative sentences.
 
Yeah, I also have that feeling that in 6 it requires 'of'. Thanks!

I didn't say 6 required it - as I said it's optional, but I'd personally probably include it.


As for 5, do you think 'of' is optional there (with all, both and half)?
  • I have all ours right here.
  • I have all of ours right here.
Are these two both fine and mean the same thing?
Again, I said I'd consider 'of' optional in all three sentences. That includes #5.

I can't see any difference in meaning with or without it. Otherwise, it I wouldn't call it optional and would have made some comment about both being acceptable but with a difference in meaning. That's not the quite the same as optional.
 
all of them ✅
all of us ✅
all them ❌
all us ❌

(I find it surprising that a native speaker might find the latter two okay.)


  • I have all ours right here.
  • I have all of ours right here.
Are these two both fine and mean the same thing?

Yes and yes.
 
Abe: Do all of these belong to us?
Bob: Yes, they're all ours.
 
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