suprunp
Senior Member
- Joined
- Apr 27, 2011
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Ukrainian
- Home Country
- Ukraine
- Current Location
- Ukraine
I heard this structure for the first time while watching some British TV series and it eventually led me to this entry.
Another controversial issue is the insertion of have where it is superfluous, as, for example, I might have missed it if you hadn't have pointed it out (rather than the standard ... if you hadn't pointed it out). This construction has been around since at least the 15th century, but only where a hypothetical situation is presented (e.g., statements starting with if). More recently, there has been speculation among grammarians and linguists that this insertion of have may represent a kind of subjunctive and is actually making a useful distinction in the language. However, it is still regarded as an error in standard English.
New Oxford American Dictionary, 2nd Edition.
I'd like to hear your opinions, as grammarians and linguists, on this issue. Is the insertion of have really making a useful distinction in the language?
As far as I can understand there is no need to speculate about the structure having any effect on practical English usage, but I for some reason find it interesting to look at this from a grammatical point of view.
Thanks.
Another controversial issue is the insertion of have where it is superfluous, as, for example, I might have missed it if you hadn't have pointed it out (rather than the standard ... if you hadn't pointed it out). This construction has been around since at least the 15th century, but only where a hypothetical situation is presented (e.g., statements starting with if). More recently, there has been speculation among grammarians and linguists that this insertion of have may represent a kind of subjunctive and is actually making a useful distinction in the language. However, it is still regarded as an error in standard English.
New Oxford American Dictionary, 2nd Edition.
I'd like to hear your opinions, as grammarians and linguists, on this issue. Is the insertion of have really making a useful distinction in the language?
As far as I can understand there is no need to speculate about the structure having any effect on practical English usage, but I for some reason find it interesting to look at this from a grammatical point of view.
Thanks.