[Grammar] If it is an auxiliary, why is it omited?

[The apprentice]

Dear teachers and members:

I° - Ronald Reagan: «138 members of my administration were investigated, indicted, or convicted of crime.»


II° - Barrack Obama: «Not a single one of mine has [investigated, indicted, or convicted].»


III° - «Their bags were picked up and taken to New York, but mine haven't [picked up and taken to New York].»


It's obvous that BEEN has been omitted from quotes II° and III°. After discussing with some members about it, I have the following 4 questions [which are] at the end of this post.


It's clearly known that BE is used to form the passive voice, and HAVE the perfect tenses. In short answers the main verb is not necessarily to be mentioned when a question has previously been asked; an auxiliary is not omitted in any sentence whether long of short.


Have you been taken to New York?


No, I haven't.


QUESTIONS:


(1) Is BE an auxiliary verb in the passive voice?


(2) If is HAVE the auxiliary for the passive voice BEEN TAKEN, or HAVE and BE both are auxiliaries in the question above?


(3) Knowing that an auxiliary cannot be omitted in any sentence, can BE, which I consider to be an auxiliary in the passive voice, be omitted when a short sentence is used in order to omit some parts of a previous one as in sentences II° and III° above?


(4) Is BE is an auxiliary in the passive voice, why is it omitted in short answers?


Thanks up front.

 

[bhaisahab]

I° - Ronald Reagan: «138 members of my administration were investigated, indicted, or convicted of crime.»


II° - Barrack Obama: «Not a single one of mine has [investigated, indicted, or convicted].»


III° - «Their bags were picked up and taken to New York, but mine haven't [picked up and taken to New York].»


Did you write these?

 

[Rover_KE]

In what language is ° a symbol for 'number'?

In English it means 'degrees'.

 

[The apprentice]

In any language Rover_KE; I'm used to doing this way.

 

[SoothingDave]

In any event, where did you find these sentences?

 

[The apprentice]

No, I didn't. The I° and II° were taken them from a picture in an English grammar forum, the III° from one the members comment; the ones inside the brackets were done by me.

As for me Bhaisahab, BEEN cannot be omitted in each of them. but basically I would like to know the followings:

Is HAVE the auxiliary for the passive voice BEEN TAKEN, or HAVE and BE both are auxiliaries in the question below?

Have you been taken to New York?

No, I haven't.

Is BE is an auxiliary in the passive voice, why is it omitted in short answers when it's along with the auxiliary HAVE?

Have you been taken to New York?

No, I haven't [been].

 

[The apprentice]

SoothingDave, if I knew how to upload or paste pictures, I would let you know where I found them.

Please, I would like to know if BE is an auxiliary verb in the passive voice, and if in the sentence below, HAVE is an auxiliary for BEEN TAKEN, or if BE and HAVE both are auxiliaries in this sentence below.

Have you been taken to New York?

No, I haven't.

 

[konungursvia]

In what language is ° a symbol for 'number'?

In English it means 'degrees'.

In the Latin languages, it changes numbers to the ordinal from the cardinal (primo, secundo, tertio...) so it's actually a superscript O.

 

[The apprentice]

Thank you all, I would also like to see your comments regarding the following:


I have a red car (''red'' is an adjective which modifies the noun ''car'')


I have a wonderful red car (''wonderful'' is an adjective which modifies the noun phrase ''red car'')


You were taken to New York (passive voice in the simple past tense)


You have been taken to New York (passive voice in the present perfect tense)


As far as I can understand, BE is an auxiliary verb for the main verb TAKE in ''you were taken to New York''; whereas HAVE is an auxiliary for the passive voice structure ''were taken''. Am I right?

 

[The apprentice]

Okay, I acknowledge your clarification Konungursvia. Aside from your clarification, why didn't you provide an answer to the questions?

 

[Raymott]

Like you, I'm surprised that we're on page 2, and no one has addressed the question yet.
I. is correct
II. is also correct, since "been investigated, indicted, or convicted" is ellipted out.
This short dialogue is acceptable:
Person A: I've been to Bangkok.
Person B: I haven't.
In fact, it would be unusual to answer, "I haven't been."
III. is wrong because the original sentence doesn't include "haven't", even implicitly.
This correct:
A: "My bags have been picked up."
B: "Mine haven't."
This is not correct:
A: "My bags were picked up"
B: "Mine haven't." Huh? Haven't what?

To your questions.
1. Yes 'be' is an auxiliary in the passive, as in "I have been injured".
2. "Have been" is the auxiliary/auxiliaries in the perfect passive; "be" in the simple passive.
3. I don't accept your premise that the auxiliary cannot be omitted, since 'been' may be omitted in my example above. It may be true that the whole auxiliary cannot be omitted.
4. Again, your question seems to assume that an auxiliary can't be omitted.