Is accent and prejudice a direct equation?

Status
Not open for further replies.

Manuel2P

New member
Joined
Aug 15, 2012
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Spanish
Home Country
Spain
Current Location
Spain
I mean, do the two go always together? I have read in an article that every accent in England is associated with stereotypes or habits of a specific region.

Thanks.
 
I mean, do the two go always together? I have read in an article that every accent in England is associated with stereotypes or habits of a specific region.

Thanks.
The proposition is that any group of people who speak with a distinctive accent will also differ in some other way from people not in the group. This is very likely on a statistical basis. But not everyone with accent A will have attribute X which is strongly linked with accent A, unless there's a 100% correlation.
If you simply assume that someone with accent A has attribute X, that is prejudice (unless there is the 100% correlation). Such prejudice is not always a bad thing, as long as one understands that they are prejudging simply to make the world easier to understand.
(I might offer a person with a British accent a cup of tea rather than coffee. That might offend some people, but it's an opening gambit.) It's the sentiments behind stereotypes that make them useful or evil, in my opinion.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Ask a Teacher

If you have a question about the English language and would like to ask one of our many English teachers and language experts, please click the button below to let us know:

(Requires Registration)
Back
Top