It is no use crying over spilt milk!

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Winwin2011

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It is no use crying over spilt milk!

Why is “It is no use + infinitive” incorrect? i.e. It is no use to cry over spilt milk!

Thanks.
 

Winwin2011

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Hi anhnha

I’ve read all the threads. Some people just said “It is no use” should be followed by a gerund. They didn’t explain why “It is no use + infinitive” is incorrect.
 

5jj

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I’ve read all the threads. Some people just said “It is no use” should be followed by a gerund. They didn’t explain why “It is no use + infinitive” is incorrect.
Some verbs and expressions are followed only by an infinitive, some only by a gerund, some by either with a similar meaning, some by either but with a different meaning. That's just the way the language is.
 
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