make someone done/be done

[ademoglu]

Hi

Is it grammatically OK to say 'Mr. Adams made his wife killed' to indicate that he caused the action of his wife being killed or should I just say 'Mr. Adams made his wife be killed'?

P.S. I know it is correct to say 'Mr. Adams had his wife killed' but I want to know if the above one is OK.

 

[Rover_KE]

No – it isn't.

 

[ademoglu]

No – it isn't.

What about ''Mr. Adams made his wife be killed''?

 

[Piscean]

No.

 

[jutfrank]

No.

You could say Mr Adams caused his wife to be killed.

A rule of thumb: Don't follow causative 'make' with a past participle. You can follow with an adjective (make someone angry, etc.) or with an infinitive (make someone cry, etc.) but not a past participle, unless it's working as an adjective (make someone tired, etc.).