Mother wants to hear Tom Speak.

[Kamshing]

1) Mother wants to hear Tom speak.

2) Mother wants to hear Tom spoke.

Dearteachers, which sentence is correct?Kam shing

 

[GoesStation]

Number 1 is correct.

 

[Kamshing]

Dear teachers,

If I change these sentences to past tense, which sentence is correct?

1) Mother wanted to hear Tom speak.

2) Mother wanted to hear Tom spoke.

Kam shing

 

[bubbha]

Dear teachers,

If I change these sentences to past tense, which sentence is correct?

1) Mother wanted to hear Tom speak.

2) Mother wanted to hear Tom spoke.

Kam shing

Only 1) is correct.

 

[emsr2d2]

It doesn't matter what verb form/tense you use at the start, the end uses the bare infinitive.

She wants to hear Tom speak.
She wanted to hear Tom speak.
For years, she has wanted to hear Tom speak.
For years, she had wanted to hear Tom speak.
She will want to hear Tom speak.
She would have wanted to hear Tom speak.

 

[Rover_KE]

1) Mother wants to hear Tom speak.

2) Mother wants to hear Tom spoke.

[STRIKE]Dearteachers,[/STRIKE] Unnecessary. Just go ahead and ask your question. Which sentence is correct?[STRIKE]Kam shing[/STRIKE] Unnecessary.

[STRIKE]Dear teachers,[/STRIKE] Unnecessary, and members who are not teachers can answer.

If I change these sentences to the past tense, which sentence is correct?

1) Mother wanted to hear Tom speak.

2) Mother wanted to hear Tom spoke.

[STRIKE]Kam shing[/STRIKE] Unnecessary.

:-D

 

[Kamshing]

She wanted to hear Tom speak.

In this sentence, why the end uses the bare infinitive?

Let me explain first, if I am wrong, please correct me.

Tn this sentence, the original sentence should be:

She wanted to hear Tom to speak. The word "to" was deleted. 'To speak' is bare infinitive.

When I asked questions in BBC forum and later in Mustardland forum, all teachers and learners like to answer my questions and explained.

I still remember Rover was in the above forums.

 

[emsr2d2]

No, "to speak" is the full infinitive (sometimes called the "to-infinitive"); "speak" is the bare infinitive.

 

[Kamshing]

She wanted to hear Tom to speak.

Is this sentence also correct?

 

[emsr2d2]

She wanted to hear Tom speak.

In this sentence, why is the bare infinitive used at the end​? [STRIKE]uses the bare infinitive?[/STRIKE]

Let me explain first. If I am wrong, please correct me.

[STRIKE]Tn[/STRIKE] In this sentence, the [STRIKE]original sentence[/STRIKE] wording should be:

She wanted to hear Tom to speak. The word "to" was deleted. 'To speak' is the bare infinitive.

When I asked this [STRIKE]questions[/STRIKE] questionin the BBC forum and later in the Mustardland forum, all the teachers and learners [STRIKE]like[/STRIKE] [STRIKE]chose[/STRIKE] to answer my [STRIKE]questions[/STRIKE] question and they explained their answers.

I [STRIKE]still[/STRIKE] remember that Rover was in the above forums.

Note my corrections above.

 

[kadioguy]

She wanted to hear Tom to speak.

Is this sentence also correct?

Good dictionaries can help you, for example:
https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/hear?q=hear
https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/hear
https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/hear?q=hear+

hear somebody/something doing something
hear somebody do something
somebody/something is heard to do something

PS: According to the posting guidelines I need to stat clearly that I am not a teacher.

 

[Matthew Wai]

She wanted to hear Tom speak.

In this sentence, why the end uses the bare infinitive?

Because 'hear' is a verb of perception. See https://www.englishgrammar.org/verbs-perception/