Noun clause reduction

[ringu20]

I am happy now that I finished the project.
I am happy now to have finished the project.

Neil denies that he broke window, but I'm sure he did.
Neil denies breaking window.


In the first example, since there is a time difference, the past form of the infinitive is used. But in the second example, although there is a simple present/past simple difference just like the first example, the past form of the gerund isn't used.

I don't understand why?

 

[Rover_KE]

Where did you find those examples?

 

[ringu20]

A turkish website that teaches english. Are the sentences incorrect?

 

[GoesStation]

Both sentences containing bold text are incorrect. Here's how they could be fixed:

I am happy [STRIKE]now[/STRIKE] to have finished the project.

Neil denies breaking the window.

 

[ringu20]

But you didn't answer my question.

"In the first example, since there is a time difference, the past form of the infinitive is used. But in the second example, although there is a simple present/past simple difference just like the first example, the past form of the gerund isn't used. I don't understand why?"

 

[GoesStation]

I don't know enough grammar to explain. Sorry.

 

[emsr2d2]

A Turkish website that teaches English.

Remember to capitalise proper nouns.

 

[jutfrank]

Don't try to analyse those sentences. Use these ones:

I'm happy to have finished the project.
I'm happy I've finished the project.

Both sentences above mean the same thing. The second needs present perfect, not past simple.

Neil denies breaking the window.

This means that he presently denies a past action. There is no reason to use a past gerund.

 

[ringu20]

Don't try to analyse those sentences. Use these ones:

I'm happy to have finished the project.
I'm happy I've finished the project.

Both sentences above mean the same thing. The second needs present perfect, not past simple.

Neil denies breaking the window.

This means that he presently denies a past action. There is no reason to use a past gerund.

I still don't understand if he presently denies a past action, why don't we use the past form of gerund.

On another website (an english website), there is a very similar sentence and the past form of gerund is used.

https://www.learnesl.net/past-gerund/

"He denies having stolen the money."

Doesn't he presently deny a past action in this sentence too? If so, why do we use the present gerund in the first one and the past gerund in the second one?

 

[emsr2d2]

english

Read post #7 again.

 

[Rover_KE]

I don't understand why. [STRIKE]?[/STRIKE]

That's not a question.

 

[ringu20]

Doesn't anyone in the forum know the answer of my question?

 

[tzfujimino]

Please read jutfrank's post again and try this:
https://www.grammaring.com/the-forms-of-the-gerund
(Please scroll down to Perfect gerund.)

(Edit)
I'm not familiar with the term 'present/past gerund'.
Not a grammarian

 

[ringu20]

So, should the second example have been the present gerund?

 

[tzfujimino]

"The perfect gerund refers to a time before that of the verb in the main clause. However, it is only used if the time of the action expressed by the gerund is not obvious from the context."

"If it is clear that an earlier time is meant, we use the simple gerund."

Did you read those?

 

[tzfujimino]

So, should the second example have been the present gerund?

As I said, I'm not familiar with the term 'present gerund'.

 

[jutfrank]

I still don't understand if he presently denies a past action, why don't we use the past form of gerund?

It isn't necessary.

On another website (an english website), there is a very similar sentence and the past form of gerund is used.

https://www.learnesl.net/past-gerund/

"He denies having stolen the money."

Doesn't he presently deny a past action in this sentence too?

Yes.

If so, why do we use the present gerund in the first one and the past gerund in the second one?

It's not necessary to use a past gerund. The meaning is perfectly clear without it.

 

[Tarheel]

In this thread I have encountered three classes of gerunds that are new to me. What use are they?

 

[Phaedrus]

It's not necessary to use a past gerund. The meaning is perfectly clear without it.

The perfect is just as unnecessary there as the past perfect in "He denied that he had stolen the money." We can say "He denied that he stole the money."