[Grammar] Omitting "have"

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Loseless

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This might sound silly to an English speaker, but I just wanted to know what's the difference between, for example... "I waited." and " I have waited." Is that even the same tense if we left out that "have"? When I translate it to my language it means pretty much the same thing. Sorry if the question is a little immature, I usually don't have the need to jump right on the forum and ask questions like this... :)
 
Welcome to Using English. :hi:

It's not immature, but it's a very basic question.
The past simple and the present perfect (I waited, I have waited, respectively) are certainly not the same.

Take a look at this resource: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/601/01/

You can also google the phrase tense simple past present perfect
and see if the other hits help you.
 
1. John did his homework. He can go to the movies.
2. If John has done his homework, he can go to the movies.

Are there any differences in the above sentences?
 
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Yes, the second is a conditional sentence. John can go to the movies only if he has done his homework. In the first, the permission was granted.
 
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