others have or has.

[ahmin92]

Does the other have a good time?

does the others have a good time?

Does the other has a good time?

Does the others has a good time?

From what I see, i think does other have a good time is the correct one.

The other/others have/has to do this before the day time.

which one?? other have? others have? other has? others has?

I think other has is the only one correct. Right?

others is referring to people. what about other? if other referring a person it would be weird right? I have searched for the difference between other and others and I'm still don't get it.

 

[billmcd]

Does the other one have a good time? Not usually for people. For example, could be: (A) I have two dogs. The spaniel has a great time at the dog park. (B) Does the other one have a good time?

does the others have a good time? No. Could be "Do the others.....?"

Does the other has a good time? No. "have".

Does the others has a good time? No. "Do.......have.....?"

From what I see, I think does other have a good time is the correct one. No.

The other/others have/has to do this before [STRIKE]the day time[/STRIKE]morning.

which one?? other have? others have? other has? others has?

I think other has is the only one correct. Right? No.

others is referring to people. what about other? if other referring a person it would be weird right? Not only weird but wrong. I have searched for the difference between other and others and I'm still don't get it. In general, "others" can refer to persons and things. "Other" usually refers to things but could refer to persons as in "the other person", "their other daughter"

b.

 

[ahmin92]

b.

What about ...

The other person has/have the pencil.

I guess has is the correct one right? When it comes to 'do' and 'does' are the head of the sentence, they both use 'have'. Am i right?

 

[bhaisahab]

What about ...

The other person has/have the pencil.

I guess has is the correct one right? Yes. When it comes to 'do' and 'does' are the head of the sentence, they both use 'have'. Am i right? Yes, when we use the auxiliary "do/does", the verb is in the bare infinitive.

Bhai.

 

[ahmin92]

Bhai.

Thanks for answering me.:up: