She has a conception of people as being basically good

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Ador

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She has a conception of people as being basically good.

Can I write that sentence like this - She has a conception of people as to be basically good?
 
She basically believes people are good.
 
She basically believes people are good.

You've got basically in the wrong place there. You mean She believes people are basically good.
 
Ador, I see you posted the same thread here.

We recommend posting a question on one forum only initially. If you do not get a satisfactory answer from that forum and you feel that you have exhausted its possibilities, then of course trying a different forum might help. It is only courteous however, to tell the second forum that you have already asked the question on another forum and then give a precis of the answers you received there, or provide a link to it, along with an explanation of why you are now looking elsewhere.
(emsr2d2)
 
You've got basically in the wrong place there. You mean She believes people are basically good.

Yes, and I don't like "conception".
 

I can't understand the difference between infinitive "to be" and gerund "being". I have asked so many people about this question. Some of them said it's right, some of them said no it's (have a conception of people as being) a fixed phrase and I have to use it exactly this way and rest of others didn't say whether it's right or wrong rather just told me to write the way they had showed me to.
 
It's simple, Ador—to be is wrong. That's the difference.

I suggest that you don't consult the people who said it's right on other matters. Those people are getting confused between different patterns.

Personally, I don't much like the sentence as it is, even with being. It's better like this:

She has the conception that people are basically good.

Why do you want to use have a conception, anyway? Are you sure that's what you mean? Perhaps you mean either of the following:

She believes people are basically good.
She has the idea that people are basically good.


If you tell us in more detail about what exactly you mean, we'll tell you if you're saying it in the best way.
 
She believes people are basically good.

I endorse that one.
 
That attachment doesn't open. Post a link, please.
 
That's better. Thanks.

The sentence clearly uses as being. So where did you get the idea that you can use as to be? (You can't.)

Look—the pattern used here is as follows.

to have a conception of something as something

In this pattern, the slots I've filled with 'something' must be filled with a noun phrase (in the case of the second one, a gerund phrase). It would be ungrammatical to use an infinitive there.
 
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That's better. Thanks.

The sentence clearly uses as being. So where did you get the idea that you can use as to be? (You can't.)

Look—the pattern used here is as follows.

to have a conception of something as something

In this pattern, the slots I've filled with 'something' must be filled with a noun phrase (in the case of the second one, a gerund phrase). It would ungrammatical to use an infinitive there.


I have read that infinitive and gerund can be used interchangeably. That's why I thought I could also use "to be" instead of "being".
 
That's better. Thanks.

The sentence clearly uses as being. So where did you get the idea that you can use as to be? (You can't.)

Look—the pattern used here is as follows.

to have a conception of something as something

In this pattern, the slots I've filled with 'something' must be filled with a noun phrase (in the case of the second one, a gerund phrase). It would ungrammatical to use an infinitive there.




Here is another one. These people are saying that "both usages are equally correct".


Screenshot_2020-04-25-01-23-59-865_com.android.chrome.jpg

Screenshot_2020-04-25-01-24-12-305_com.android.chrome.jpg

Link : https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/33189/to-be-vs-being-after-adjective-and-why
 
I have read that infinitive and gerund can be used interchangeably.

No, that's incorrect. They can never be used interchangeably.

Even in the very few cases in which they're both possible grammatically, there's always some kind of difference.
 
Here is another one. These people are saying that "both usages are equally correct".

Those are completely different sentences, Ador!

You made us think that you were asking about the sentence in your original post.
 
The belief seems to resemble that of the famous, ancient Chinese philosopher called Mencius:

https://www.sandiegoreader.com/news/2018/oct/03/chinese-philosopher-mencius-asserted-human-nature-/

Interesting. Some people think we are innately good. Some think think we are innately evil. Some think we learn (and become) what we are taught.

I believe people learn best by conversation.

Maybe people are not innately good or innately bad, but they learn according to what they are taught.
 
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