She hasn’t been speaking since 9 o’clock.

lagoo

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She hasn’t been speaking since 9 o’clock.

The grammar book written by a Chinese author explains the sentence above as equals to “she has been speaking not since nine but perhaps since half past nine.”

Is the author wrong?
 

emsr2d2

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If the preceding statement was "She has been speaking since 9 o'clock" and the quoted sentence is meant to be a statement of disagreement, then the author is right.

- This is a really long speech.
- I know! She's been speaking since 9 o'clock.
- She hasn't been speaking since 9 o'clock. I think she started at about 8.15!
- Yes, you're right.
 

lagoo

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Couldn't it mean she has been keeping silent since 9 ?
 

emsr2d2

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No. That would be "She hasn't spoken since 9 o'clock".
 
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