subjunctive verb problem

[RobertT]

I think maybe what Pedroski is referring to is that when the conjugated form of the verb coincides in the subjunctive or indicative mood it may be difficult to clearly decide which mood is being used. Whether or not that is what Pedroski means, this used to be also a doubt and discomfort of mine. However the language phenomenon occurs regardless of the fact that we call a verb mood subjunctive, indicative or whatever. I mean, the problem is in the model, not in language itself.

Anyway the inflection of verbs in English is poor compared to other languages - not just concerning this particular subjunctive issue. Is this an advantage or a disadvantage?

From what I've learned all if-clauses except one are in subjunctive mood.

 

[Pedroski]

I think this shows that the zero conditional is in fact simply a declarative sentence.

If she have enough money, she will buy that dress. No one says that.
If she has enough money, she will buy that dress. Change if for when if you like.

I did mean that 1st person subjunctive is hard to tell apart from the present tense. But as Philo said, the 3rd person is easier to spot. And you don't spot it in zero conditionals.

 

[Pedroski]

I think this shows that the zero conditional is in fact simply a declarative sentence.

If she have enough money, she will buy that dress. No one says that.
If she has enough money, she will buy that dress. Change if for when if you like.

I did mean that 1st person subjunctive is hard to tell apart from the present tense. But as Philo said, the 3rd person is easier to spot. And you don't spot it in zero conditionals.