[Grammar] There is no pen, IS THERE? /ARE THERE?

[Sahil Dhankhar]

This is not my homework.

I think that subjects such as everyone, anyone, no one, etc., when used in statements preceding question tags, they take plural pronouns in question tags.
Example- No one was there, were they?

Is this still valid in the following sentences? To answer this question, kindly tell me if the following sentences are correct?

1-No pen is black, are they?
2-No pen is black, is it?

3-No pen is there, are there?
4-No pen is there, is there?

 

[GoesStation]

The sentences are not natural.

 

[Sahil Dhankhar]

What about the following sentences?

There are no pens to write with, are there?
There is no pen to write with, is there?

I think the above two sentences mean the same thing. Am I right?

 

[jutfrank]

Only 2 is grammatical.

 

[jutfrank]

What about the following sentences?

There are no pens to write with, are there?
There is no pen to write with, is there?

I think the above two sentences mean the same thing. Am I right?

They are both correct. Obviously, they mean different things. One is asking about plural pens and the other about a singular pen.

 

[Sahil Dhankhar]

Thanks, I believe, "No" can be used with singular as well as plural nouns. Example- No problem is unsolvable. No problems are unsolvable.
But I am unable to find what difference is there in the use.
I think-
There are no pens to write with- means there was not a single pen.
There is no pen write with also -means there was not a single pen.
Am I wrong?

 

[jutfrank]

No problem is unsolvable. No problems are unsolvable.
But I am unable to find what difference is there in the use.

Use the singular, not the plural.

There are no pens to write with- means there was not a single pen.
There is no pen write with also -means there was not a single pen.
Am I wrong?

Although there is a lack of pens in reality (so neither one nor many), the difference here is whether there is just one or many pens in the speaker's mind when he speaks. I understand this sounds strange, but it is not possible to form a mental picture of absence. What we do is imagine the presence of something (either one pen or many pens) and then negate its existence.

Does that make sense? Is this not the same in Hindi?

 

[Sahil Dhankhar]

I think, in Hindi, we don't use "No" before Nouns like we do in English.
"No pens/pen" is not possible in Hindi.