[General] 'to be' or to omit 'to be'?

[maoyueh]

Which of the sentences below is correct? Thank you.

1. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales to be stagnant.

2. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales stagnant.

 

[Raymott]

Which of the sentences below is correct? Thank you.

1. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales to be stagnant.

2. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales stagnant.

Neither is good, but the first is possible. Better would be "have seen pork sales stagnate".

 

[emsr2d2]

Which of the sentences below is correct? Thank you.

1. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales to be stagnant.

2. Since the outbreak of the foot-and-mouth disease, the local meat market and butcher shops have seen the pork sales stagnant.

"... shops have seen pork sales stagnate."

It doesn't work with the adjective "stagnant".