to get John angry

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navi tasan

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1) He said something to get John angry.
2) He said something for John to get angry.

3) What did he say to get John angry?
4) What did he say for John to get angry?

Which of the above imply that the speaker thinks 'he' intended to get John angry?
 
The first one. Also, I would say: "He deliberately provoked John " Or: "He said something to make John angry."
 
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Both 1 and 3 could imply that he intended to anger John, but not necessarily so. John's anger might have been provoked by the substance of what was said, regardless of the speaker's intent. I consider 2 and 4 similar but less natural. They may, however, be regional.
 
Which of the above imply that the speaker thinks 'he' intended to get John angry?
None of them by themselves imply there was any such intention. But that implication could come from what was said earlier--from the context.
 
I hope I understand the question properly.

I'd say 1 and 2 do, for sure, but 3 and 4 not so much.

Is that what you're wondering?
 
Thank you all very much,

Yes, Jutfrank. You are absolutely right.

Gratefully,
Navi
 
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