nleng
Member
- Joined
- Oct 3, 2016
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Hindi
- Home Country
- India
- Current Location
- India
Could you help me understand the use of having to in the sentence below?
They make sense without having to transfer action anywhere.
As far as I know, if we want to use a verb after a preposition, it must be in -ing form. Therefore the verb "have" becomes "having". Can the sentence above not be formed as They make sense without transferring action anywhere instead.
OR
Would it be correct if I changed the sentence above?
Without transferring action anywhere, they make sense.
I'll better understand the whole concept if the help of examples and explanations are given to me.
They make sense without having to transfer action anywhere.
As far as I know, if we want to use a verb after a preposition, it must be in -ing form. Therefore the verb "have" becomes "having". Can the sentence above not be formed as They make sense without transferring action anywhere instead.
OR
Would it be correct if I changed the sentence above?
Without transferring action anywhere, they make sense.
I'll better understand the whole concept if the help of examples and explanations are given to me.