jutfrank
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- Mar 5, 2014
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If a change in the verb is mandatory, then, for instance, only Romanic languages do certainly have future tenses.
This is far from being true. I'd imagine there are hundreds if not thousands of languages that have a future-tense inflection of the verb.
Once again, I re-emphasize that different temporal lingiusitic patterns do reflect different worldviews.
It's an interesting idea but do you have any evidence or reason to think so?
Are the speakers of Romanic languages more future-oriented (idealistic) and those of Germanic languages more present-focused (down-to-earth)? I certainly hope not to hurt anyones's feelings
As I said above, there is an idea of some value that can be pursued that speakers of Indo-European languages (which includes all Germanic and all Romance languages) have a front-back conception of time, but this doesn't come from the language they speak (or at least not primarily) but rather from the reigio-mythological conception of the world.