[Grammar] When is "nor" independent from "neither"?

[Rosamond00]

She was not aware of nor responsible for the problem.

I was taught that in negative sentences without "neither," "or" is used not "nor." How far is this true?

 

[2006]

I was taught that in negative sentences without "neither," "or" is used not "nor." How far is this true?

It's not true.
You cannot do A; nor can you do B.

Nor | Define Nor at Dictionary.com

 

[TheParser]

I was taught that in negative sentences without "neither," "or" is used not "nor." How far is this true?

***** NOT A TEACHER *****

Good afternoon, Rosamond.

(1) I have found two references that may help you.

(a) Mr. Michael Swan's PRACTICAL EMGLISH USAGE says:

(i) "nor" CAN follow "not." It's more emphatic than a simple "not":

(a) She didn't phone that day, NOR the next day.
(b) Our main need is not food, NOR money. It's education.

(b) Pence & Emery's A GRAMMAR OF PRESENT-DAY ENGLISH gives these two sentences for you to study:

(i) NO man OR woman would think of such a thing.

(ii) I have NO inclination (wish) for such an undertaking (job), NOR the time.

(a) You use "nor" because you have two different things that you can do:

I have no INCLINATION for the undertaking, nor do I have the TIME.

Have a nice day!

 

[~Mav~]

I have no INCLINATION for the undertaking, nor do I have the TIME.

That reminded me of Col. Jessup, portrayed by Jack Nicholson in one of my favourite movies, "A Few Good Men", when he said the following sentence to Tom Cruise:

"I have neither the time nor the inclination to explain myself to a man who rises and sleeps under the blanket of the very freedom I provide, then questions the manner in which I provide it!".
(One of the best movies ever!...)


PS.: Pardon me for posting this insignificant comment.

 

[konungursvia]

As a repetition of not, nor is used, not or, as they have said above:

The race is not to the swift, nor yet the battle to the strong; but time and chance happeneth to them all.