You don't know what you got/have got until it's gone.

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diamondcutter

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Oct 21, 2014
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English Teacher
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Chinese
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China
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A few days ago, we learned a poem and discussed the famous line “You don't know what you've got until it's gone.” Miss Li told us that her primary school teacher made a huge difference in her life. She told us how her teacher encouraged her. But she mentioned that she didn't have a chance to tell her. She was sad about this.

Source: an English textbook for junior high school students in China, by Pearson Education and Beijing Normal University Press

You don't know what you've got until it's gone.
For this sentence, I’d like to know whether it will make more sense if it is changed as follows:
You don't know what you got until it's gone.
 
Your rephrased sentence isn't grammatical. That structure is used but usually only in colloquial speech, in some places.
 
What about this sentence? Is it correct?
You only know what you got after it’s gone.
 
What about these two sentences? Do they make sense?

1. You don't know what you had until it’s gone.
2. You only know what you had after it’s gone.
 
Well, if I didn't know I had it why would I miss it? Perhaps: "You don't always appreciate what you have until it's gone. Then you miss it."
 
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The Joni Mitchell song "Got Til It's Gone" has a lot to answer for. The line "You don't know what you got til it's gone" is repeated over and over. That is grammatically incorrect and should be "You don't know what you've got til it's gone". I know we always remind learners that song lyrics should never be taken as examples of good English but in cases like this, it's really frustrating that such usage has wormed its way into the language.
 
You don't know what you got until it's gone.

I wouldn't call that a 'structure' in itself. It's just a way of representing in writing that the speaker has elided the verb have so that it's unuttered. It's still 'there', structurally speaking.
 
I wouldn't call that a 'structure' in itself. It's just a way of representing in writing that the speaker has elided the verb have so that it's unuttered. It's still 'there', structurally speaking.
I would say that with some speakers it is not there at all.
 
The Joni Mitchell song "Got Til It's Gone" has a lot to answer for. The line "You don't know what you got til it's gone" is repeated over and over. That is grammatically incorrect and should be "You don't know what you've got til it's gone".

I really think that Joni is physically saying you've every time. Listen to the video Rover posted. I think I can hear the have every time. Same with the album version.
 
I really think that Joni is physically saying you've every time. Listen to the video Rover posted. I think I can hear the have every time. Same with the album version.
My ears are no longer sharp enough to be sure. I am prepared to accept that Joni produces a /v/ there/. However, I said, and stand by, "I would say that with some speakers it is not there at all".
 
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I just watched that video and I can't hear the "'ve" at all.
 
I just watched that video and I can't hear the "'ve" at all.
It's not there. That's my point - the song has got people thinking that "You don't know what you got til it's gone" is perfectly acceptable!
 
If you consult any one of the many lyrics sites available online, you'll find that they list the official lyrics as "you got" in every line.
 
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