[Grammar] if were + to-infinitive

Status
Not open for further replies.

Boris Tatarenko

Senior Member
Joined
May 6, 2013
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Russian
Home Country
Russian Federation
Current Location
Russian Federation
Hello.

Somebody told me that native speakers usually said "if were + to-infinitive" instead of "if + past simple" in unreal condiationals (I don't remember what it calls properly). What would you say?

1a. If they were to hold an election now, the Republicans would undoubtedly lose.
1b. If they held an election now, the Republicans would undoubtedly lose.

2a. If this technology were to become available, I would be able to expand my business
2b. If this technology became available, I would be able to expand my business

3a. If this theater were to close, it would be no entertainment in the city.
3b. If this theater closed, it would be no entertainment in the city.

Personally, I'd definitely go for "b" sentences. What do you think?
 

Eckaslike

Senior Member
Joined
Jul 3, 2015
Member Type
Teacher (Other)
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
Wales
Hello Boris,

I think both forms are fine. To me the "a." forms are more traditional, the "b." forms more modern and concise. I would probably chose b. as well, but as I said, I think both forms work form me.

One slight change is needed in sentences 3a and 3b. You need to replace the "it" with "there":

3a. If this theater were to close, [STRIKE]it[/STRIKE] there would be no entertainment in the city.
3b. If this theater closed, [STRIKE]it[/STRIKE] there would be no entertainment in the city.
 

MikeNewYork

VIP Member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
I prefer the a. forms. They are subjunctive.
 

Tdol

No Longer With Us (RIP)
Staff member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Native Language
British English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
Japan
The a) forms could suggest an even smaller chance of the event occurring.
 

MikeNewYork

VIP Member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
One could also say they were indicative. The a. forms are obviously subjunctive.
 

Raymott

VIP Member
Joined
Jun 29, 2008
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
English
Home Country
Australia
Current Location
Australia

MikeNewYork

VIP Member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
They are in indicative form.
 

Tdol

No Longer With Us (RIP)
Staff member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Native Language
British English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
Japan
The two forms are indistinguishable in the past, except in the verb be.
 

MikeNewYork

VIP Member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
But, as you posted, the subjunctive form might indicate a smaller possibility. The purpose of mood is for the speaker/writer to provide an opinion. It is the choice of the speaker writer to provide the verb form.
 

MikeNewYork

VIP Member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
Academic
Native Language
American English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
In my youth, most grammarians insisted it was indicative. Another AmE/BrE difference.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top