[Grammar] if were + to-infinitive

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Boris Tatarenko

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May 6, 2013
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Russian
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Russian Federation
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Russian Federation
Hello.

Somebody told me that native speakers usually said "if were + to-infinitive" instead of "if + past simple" in unreal condiationals (I don't remember what it calls properly). What would you say?

1a. If they were to hold an election now, the Republicans would undoubtedly lose.
1b. If they held an election now, the Republicans would undoubtedly lose.

2a. If this technology were to become available, I would be able to expand my business
2b. If this technology became available, I would be able to expand my business

3a. If this theater were to close, it would be no entertainment in the city.
3b. If this theater closed, it would be no entertainment in the city.

Personally, I'd definitely go for "b" sentences. What do you think?
 
Hello Boris,

I think both forms are fine. To me the "a." forms are more traditional, the "b." forms more modern and concise. I would probably chose b. as well, but as I said, I think both forms work form me.

One slight change is needed in sentences 3a and 3b. You need to replace the "it" with "there":

3a. If this theater were to close, [STRIKE]it[/STRIKE] there would be no entertainment in the city.
3b. If this theater closed, [STRIKE]it[/STRIKE] there would be no entertainment in the city.
 
I prefer the a. forms. They are subjunctive.
 
The a) forms could suggest an even smaller chance of the event occurring.
 
One could also say they were indicative. The a. forms are obviously subjunctive.
 
They are in indicative form.
 
The two forms are indistinguishable in the past, except in the verb be.
 
But, as you posted, the subjunctive form might indicate a smaller possibility. The purpose of mood is for the speaker/writer to provide an opinion. It is the choice of the speaker writer to provide the verb form.
 
In my youth, most grammarians insisted it was indicative. Another AmE/BrE difference.
 
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