[Grammar] Anyone would think...

[NAL123]

Are the following sentences correct? (they are mine)

a) Anyone would think he owns/owned the place, from the way he talks! (talking about the present)

b) Anyone would think he owned/had owned the place, from the way he talked! (talking about the past)

c) Anyone would've thought he owned the place, from the way he talked! (talking about the past)

 

[Raymott]

a. You can use either. "owned" is subjunctive.
b. You can't tell whether "had owned" or "owned" is correct, because we don't know the context. He either owned it at the time, or he had owned at some time before this was said.
c. Yes, that's OK. This is referring to thinking in the past. The other two are referring to thinking in the present.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

In the first example, I like owned better. It sounds more natural to these two American ears. But both choices are grammatical.

 

[Tarheel]

NAL: Anyone would think he owns the place from the way he talks.
Ron: He does own the place
NAL: Oh. That explains it.

 

[NAL123]

b. You can't tell whether "had owned" or "owned" is correct, because we don't know the context. He either owned it at the time, or he had owned at some time before this was said.

Are both "owned" and "had owned" subjunctive in that sentence?

 

[NAL123]

NAL; Anyone would think he owns the place from the way he talks.
Ron; He does own the place
NAL: Oh. That explains it.

Does the indicative "owns" give any indication that "he" does own the place?

 

[Tarheel]

It doesn't mean he does. It means he's acting like he does. We don't know for sure.

(I'm tempted to look up indicative.)

 

[NAL123]

It doesn't mean he does. It means he's acting like he does. We don't know for sure.

(I'm tempted to look up indicative.)

But "owns" is more sure than "owned". Am I right?

 

[Tarheel]

No. You're not right. One is not more sure than the other. Instead, it's a matter of preference.

 

[GoesStation]

But "owns" is more sure than "owned". Am I right?

Not in the given context.

 

[Tdol]

In the first example, I like owned better. It sounds more natural to these two American ears. But both choices are grammatical.

They both sound OK to my British ears. And I have two, too.

 

[Raymott]

Are both "owned" and "had owned" subjunctive in that sentence?

No, they are both indicative.

 

[Tdol]

He own would be subjunctive.

 

[Tarheel]

"How many cars does he own?"

"What does he own?"

Does he own the place?"

Are those also subjunctive?

 

[GoesStation]

"How many cars does he own?"

"What does he own?"

Does he own the place?"

Are those also subjunctive?

No. If you put "he own" in the original sentence, it would be. It wouldn't be correct though.