Where did you see blind of?
A quick Google search tells me that that book was published in 1926. You might want to update your reference library. A lot has changed in 96 years.
It's certainly not right today. I don't recall having seen that turn of phrase in old books, either. I suspect your book is simply incorrect both now and in the era in which it was written.Thank you for your suggestion. You mean that the usage of the preposition 'of' after the word 'blind' is historical rather than current. Am I right?
... but in contexts unrelated to blindness.To lose sight of something is common though.
In a grammar book named 'A text-book of higher English grammar, composition & translation' by P.K. DE SARKAR.