charged me two hundred dollars to...

[navi tasan]

1) He charged me two hundred dollars for using his office for three days.
2) He charged me two hundred dollars to use his office for three days.
3) He charged me two hundred dollars to let me use his office for three days.

Which could be used if he charged me after I used his office?
(Let's say he was away and didn't know I had used his office, then came back and found it out and charged me for it.)

Which could be used if he charged me before I used his office?

I am trying to figure out how the 'for + gerund" construct differs from the infinitive after verbs like 'pay', 'offer', 'charge', 'ask' etc.

My impression was that "for + gerund" construct corresponds to the "after-the-fact meaning" and the infinitive construct corresponds to the prospective interpretation, but my research and my wife's seem to show that things aren't really clear (at least in the case of the verbs 'ask' and 'pay'.)

 

[jutfrank]

1) He charged me two hundred dollars for using his office for three days.
2) He charged me two hundred dollars to use his office for three days.
3) He charged me two hundred dollars to let me use his office for three days.

Which could be used if he charged me after I used his office?

Sentence 1) does that best.

Which could be used if he charged me before I used his office?

2) and 3) do that well.

I am trying to figure out how the 'for + gerund" construct differs from the infinitive after verbs like 'pay', 'offer', 'charge', 'ask' etc.

My impression was that "for + gerund" construct corresponds to the "after-the-fact meaning" and the infinitive construct corresponds to the prospective interpretation, but my research and my wife's seem to show that things aren't really clear (at least in the case of the verbs 'ask' and 'pay'.)

Thank you for explaining where your question arises from.

Your way of thinking is useful to a large extent, but yes, it isn't set in stone.