he speaks about suicide

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george lh

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What is the difference between these two sentences:
1- he speaks about suicide
2- he does speak about suicide
why must we most often put "does" in the present tense?
thanks in advance.
 
They are not sentences as they don't start with a capital letter and end with a full stop. Please edit your post accordingly.
 
They are not sentences as they don't start with a capital letter and end with a full stop. Please edit your post accordingly.
What is the difference between these two sentences:
1- He speaks about suicide.
2- He does speak about suicide.
why must we most often put "does" in the present tense?
thanks in advance.
 
What do you think is the difference between those sentences?

You do know that "does" is present tense, don't you?

Could you supply some context for those sentences?
 
He speaks about suicide
No more.
He hanged himself,
And he died.
 
What is the difference between these two sentences?

1- He speaks about suicide.
2- He does speak about suicide.

​Why must we [STRIKE]most often[/STRIKE] put "does" in the present tense?
Thanks in advance.

They are both grammatically correct. #1 is the most natural if you are simply stating a fact. #2 would work as part of a longer dialogue where the speaker wants to emphasise that someone talks about suicide.

I don't know why you asked why we "most often" put "does". We don't. It's less common in a declarative statement than simply using the relevant form of the present tense.
 
He does speak about suicide could used to contradict someone who wrongly says that he doesn't speak about it. As Emsr2d2 says, it is an emphatic form, and it is not more common than he speaks about suicide.
 

Why must we most often put "does" in the present tense?

***** NOT A TEACHER *****


Hello, George:

The teachers have already given you the answer.

I just thought that you would appreciate this extra information.

I am sure that you have heard of a famous English writer named Shakespeare (1564 - 1616).

A brilliant scholar tells us that in Shakespeare's day, English speakers sometimes used "does" and sometimes didn't use "does." Shakespeare wrote "Thus conscience does make cowards of us all." Today in modern English, it would be "Thus conscience makes cowards of us all."

There was no "rule."

The scholar says that some people in those days might have used "does" for "dignity [it sounded elegant], euphony [a pleasant sound], rhythm, emphasis [which we do today], often from mere caprice [because the writer just wanted to]." Don't be surprised if you see this use of "does" in poetry or legal language nowadays.

*****

You come here for modern English, so be sure to follow the teachers' advice.


That scholar is George Oliver Curme in his 1931 masterpiece A Grammar of the English Language, Vol. II, page 23.
 
Thank you. I meant by "most often" like "usually." Is it incorrect though?
 
Thanks.I really appreciate this extra information.
 
No, it' not incorrect. Either one is fine.
 
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