[Essay] I am wondering why the dictionary writer wrote “to be”.

[GoldfishLord]

It:

used with the verb “to be” for emphasizing that you are referring to a particular person, thing, time, or place

1.It’s your brother I want to speak to.
2.It was a year ago today that I started working here.

from:http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/american/it_2
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My question: I think it is more accurate to write “be” rather than “to be”.


(I know that this is a weird question to ask. but I am curious about it)

 

[emsr2d2]

Some dictionaries (and some of us) still use the full infinitive when referring to the infinitive. The dictionary has chosen to call the infinitive form of the verb "to be". Some people will use the bare infinitive, in which case it would have said "used with the verb 'be' for emphasising ...".

 

[GoldfishLord]

Thank you very much and please give me more detailed examples

 

[emsr2d2]

I'm not sure how it can be any more detailed. You will notice for yourself, both on this forum, on grammar sites, in textbooks and in dictionaries, that some use "to" with the infinitive and some don't.

 

[GoldfishLord]

So, does the verb "to be" have the same meaning as the verb "be"?

 

[Rover_KE]

It does in this context.

 

[GoesStation]

So, does the verb "to be" have the same meaning as the verb "be"?

Those are two names for the same verb.