I have given o book for/to you to read

[JACEK1]

Hello everybody.

Does it matter which preposition is used when the meaning is maintained?

For instancję "I have given a book for you to read" or "I have given a book to you to read".

On one hand you give something to somebody.

On the other hand some verbs which do not take " for" are sometimes followed by "for".

What do you think of my conclusions?

The general meaning behind the sentence under discussion is " I have given a book to you so that you can read it.

Thank you.

 

[bhaisahab]

"I have given a book for you to read" is not a natural sentence. It doesn't say who you have given the book to.

 

[SoothingDave]

I have given you a book to read.

 

[JACEK1]

I have really come across such senrences

 

[emsr2d2]

I have really come across such senrences

That means nothing. We have all come across ungrammatical sentences, probably hundreds of times. Just because something is written down, it doesn't mean it's right.

How many sentences have you come across with no closing punctuation mark though (like your last sentence)?

 

[JACEK1]

You are 100 % right. I am sorry.

 

[Raymott]

You can use either preposition, depending on your meaning. You can use both.
"I have given you a book for you to read.", "I have given a book to you for you to read" is correct, but overkill.