Let's to talk about her

[GoodTaste]

"Let's to talk about her."

This is an example given by an "English teacher" on Chinese version of TikTok when he explains how to understand the word "about".

The question here is whether the sentence "Let's to talk about her" is grammatical.

Should it always be "Let's talk about her"?

 

[GoesStation]

Experienced forum members know that the word "always" is dangerous when applied to English usage. It's safe to say, though, that "Let's to talk" about something is always wrong.

 

[Phaedrus]

It's safe to say, though, that "Let's to talk" about something is always wrong.

I completely agree. In archaic usage, we can find sentences like "Come, let us to the castle" (Shakespeare, Othello).

However, "to" is a preposition in such sentences, not the stem of an infinitive, as it is in *[strike]Let's to talk about her[/strike].

 

[GoodTaste]

I completely agree. In archaic usage, we can find sentences like "Come, let us to the castle" (Shakespeare, Othello).

However, "to" is a preposition in such sentences, not the stem of an infinitive, as it is in *[strike]Let's to talk about her[/strike].

Because in this case, "to" is put before a noun to form a prepositional phrase or structure ("to the castle"), rather than put before a verb.

"Come, let us to the castle" appears to be a variant of "Let us come to the castle." I am not very sure.

 

[Rover_KE]

"Come, let us to the castle" appears to be a variant of "Let us come to the castle." I am not very sure.

"Let us go to the castle.'

 

[GoodTaste]

"Let us go to the castle.'

Why could "go" be omitted?

 

[Rover_KE]

It couldn't in modern English.

Shakespeare wrote Othello around 1603.

 

[emsr2d2]

Shakespeare wrote Othello around 1603.

I think it was actually around half-past five. ;-)

(Off-topic)

 

[PeterCW]

It couldn't in modern English.

Shakespeare wrote Othello around 1603.

On my bookshelf I have late 19th century school edition of a Shakespeare play. The margins are full of notes "correcting" the grammar.

 

[emsr2d2]

On my bookshelf, I have a late 19th-century school edition of a Shakespeare play. The margins are full of notes "correcting" the grammar.

See above.

 

[GoodTaste]

I think it was actually around half-past five. ;-)

I googled "Shakespeare wrote Othello around half-past five" and the results appear nowhere.
What does "half-past five" mean? Both British Library and Wikipedia points to 1603:

Shakespeare, Othello - The British Library
Othello - Wikipedia

 

[Phaedrus]

I googled "Shakespeare wrote Othello around half-past five" and the results appear nowhere.
What does "half-past five" mean?

Ems was making a joke, GoodTaste. "Half-past five" refers to 5:30 p.m., a time of day when many people have begun to consume alcohol.

P.S. This was cross-posted with Piscean's post above. I like his interpretation, too!

 

[tzfujimino]

I googled "Shakespeare wrote Othello around half-past five" and the results appear nowhere.
What does "half-past five" mean? Both British Library and Wikipedia points to 1603:

Shakespeare, Othello - The British Library
Othello - Wikipedia

That wasn't a serious comment, GoodTaste.
Do you see that wink emoticon at the end of the sentence?

I like your passion for finding out the truth, though.

:-D

 

[emsr2d2]

Ems was making a joke, GoodTaste. "Half-past five" refers to 5:30 p.m., a time of day when many people have begun to consume alcohol.

P.S. This was cross-posted with Piscean's post above. I like his interpretation, too!

It had nothing to do with consuming alcohol at all. I could have picked any time of day that wasn't 4.03pm (1603). From a grammatical point of view, and for the benefit of learners, I should add that had Rover actually been referring to a time, "in" would have been wrong; it would have been "at".

 

[Rover_KE]

Tough crowd.:roll: