[Grammar] Question on the proper use of 'succumb.'

[Trapezoidberg]

I am currently having a disagreement with someone over the proper use of the word 'succumb' and was hoping that perhaps I might get somewhere in resolving the issue on this forum.

The disagreement is that "I have succumb" might be a proper use of the word, where the 'have' makes it necessary for it to be a past participle making "I have succumbed" the proper conjugation. The given example being that "I have walked" cannot properly be said as "I have walk."

Performing a Google search with quotes "have succumb" reveals a number of uses of the word in this form, a few on '.edu' sites professing 'Grammar Help.'

Is this just a relatively common grammar mistake of using the wrong conjugation, or can someone explain to me how we have all succumb to thinking that this might be a proper use of the word? (It certainly sounds correct. However, I am in need of a more in depth explanation of it, if it is.)

 

[Raymott]

The past participle is "succumbed". To make this question at all interesting, perhaps you could post a link to where an educated person at one of these .edu sites has used "have succumb".
If it used often, then I'd guess it's because people think of it as an analogue of "come". "I have come; I have become; *I have succumb".