[Grammar] Subjunctive Mood : the Modal - should

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PENDSE

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Can the Modal " should " be used in a subjunctive mood in a Negative sentence ?

like this

Should you not come, I will give the book to somebody else.
 
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Can the Modal " should " be used in a subjunctive mood in a Negative sentence ?

like this

Should you not come, I will give the book to somebody else.
Yes, that's a correct sentence.
 
I agree that this is an acceptable sentence.

In answer to your question about should: should is not, IMO, 'in a subjunctive mood'.

If this sentence were to be translated into many other languages, the first clause might well involve a subjunctive mood. In English, however, we frequently use modals instead. The modals themselves are not subjunctive.
 
Can the Modal " should " be used in a subjunctive mood in a Negative sentence ?

like this

Should you not come, I will give the book to somebody else.

Correct. '(S)hould come' is a putative subjunctive form.
 
Correct. '(S)hould come' is a putative subjunctive form.
But, as has so frequently pointed out in various threads on this forum, most writers do not consider should to be a subjunctive form.

Putative, by the way means thought to be, supposed.
 
But, as has so frequently pointed out in various threads on this forum, most writers do not consider should to be a subjunctive form.

Putative, by the way means thought to be, supposed.

But I do. And this is my opinion and not that of most writers'. ;-) Please do not come again with this 'most writers' story. I am not interested in your statistics.
 
Can the Modal " should " be used in a subjunctive mood in a Negative sentence ?

like this

Should you not come, I will give the book to somebody else.
As you will have seen, it is disputed whether or not "Should you not come..." can be considered to be in the subjunctive mood. However, your sentence is correct.
 
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Why don't both arguing parties give their definition of "subjunctive form"? It will help us to better understand what they are arguing about. Probably each of them attributes different content to this term, that's why they can't agree. They may both be right but are looking at this phenomenon from different perspectives.
 
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Why don't both arguing parties give their definition of "subjunctive form"? It will help us to decide whose position is right.
That's surely a question for the Linguistics forum, not Ask a Teacher. Here people normally want a straightforward answer to a question, not a discussion on abstract points of theory.

In this thread, Bhaisahab provided the important information that PENDSE needed. End of thread.
 
But I do. And this is my opinion and not that of most writers'. ;-) Please do not come again with this 'most writers' story. I am not interested in your statistics.
Others may be.
 
I agree that this is an acceptable sentence.

In answer to your question about should: should is not, IMO, 'in a subjunctive mood'.

If this sentence were to be translated into many other languages, the first clause might well involve a subjunctive mood. In English, however, we frequently use modals instead. The modals themselves are not subjunctive.

Yes, Bhaisahab answered it but then it was you who turned this question into a theoretical issue.
 
Yes, Bhaisahab answered it but then it was you who turned this question into a theoretical issue.
Ok. Perhaps I was mistaken in the way I attempted to answer part of the OP's question.

All I am saying now is that perhaps this thread is not the place to discuss definitions of the subjunctive. If you care to start a thread in the Linguistics section, I'll join you there.
 
Ok. Perhaps I was mistaken in the way I attempted to answer part of the OP's question.

All I am saying now is that perhaps this thread is not the place to discuss definitions of the subjunctive. If you care to start a thread in the Linguistics section, I'll join you there.

I've started the thread in the Linguistics section as you suggested. We're looking forward to your message.
 
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