such vs such a

[ostap77]

When 'such' is used before a countable noun, is it mandatory to use the indefinite article?
1)"The corporate community is beginning to understand the magnitude of this event in such way that we are getting very, very positive responses.........."

AND

2) "It will be documented in such a way/manner as to prevent misunderstanding."

 

[Rover_KE]

My first reaction is to say 'a' is necessary, but I haven't got time to consider possible exceptions in other contexts.

Both your examples require 'a'.

 

[ostap77]

I've been able to find a number of examples on the COCA where 'such' was used without the indefinite article before the words 'way' and 'manner'. Would they all be mistakes? I'm trying to get a hold on whether it's wrong not to use the indefinite article in such examples.
"In such manner were those wounded at Midway cut off from the rest of the world."

AND

"Each state shall appoint, in such manner as the legislature thereof may direct a number of electors equal to the number of........"

 

[Roman55]

I am not a teacher.

I see a difference between the meanings of 'such way/manner' in these two examples.

'The corporate community is beginning to understand the magnitude of this event in such a way…' = 'in a way that…'

'Each state shall appoint, in such manner as the legislature…' = 'in the manner that the legislature…'

 

[Matthew Wai]

'Such' as a determiner can sometimes take the place of an article.
Am I right or wrong? Not a teacher.

 

[ostap77]

" The Rehabilitation Act is very clear that there is a " presumption of benefit, " and only in cases in which there is " clear and convincing evidence that such individual is incapable of benefiting in terms of an employment outcome " can VR discontinue services."='....that the individual is incapable...."?
If I was going to throw in the indefinite article, would it mean something like ".......that an individual is incapable........"?

 

[Roman55]

I am not a teacher.

I would have said '…that such an individual is incapable of…'. It looks wrong without 'an' to me.

Anyway, it means 'that an individual of the type that they are talking about is incapable of…'. For this to make sense, the 'individual' would already have been mentioned/defined/referred to, earlier on.

 

[ostap77]

Why would people leave out the indefinite article after 'such'? Would there be exceptions to the rule that prescribes to use the indefinite article when 'such' is used before a countable noun?

 

[Rover_KE]

You answered this question yourself in post #3.