The company will have the check revoked and issued a new one.

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tufguy

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1) The company will have the check revoked and issued a new one.

2) They have revoked the check and issued a new one.

We don't have to use "have a new one issued" (first sentence) and "have issued" (second sentence) in the second part of these sentences. We can simply use the past participle. Am I correct? I did ask you this question earlier but at that time I couldn't come up with a better example but this one I think is going to clear my doubt.
 

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1 doesn't work the way you think. You've mixed up causative have with future perfect. Stay consistent and use just one construction if you want to omit auxiliaries.
Use either "The company will have the check revoked and a new one issued" or "The company will have revoked the check and issued a new one".

2 looks fine.
 
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1 doesn't work the way you think. You've mixed up causative have with future perfect. Stay consistent and use just one construction if you want to omit auxiliaries.
Use either "The company will have the check revoked and a new one issued" or "The company will have revoked the check and issued a new one".

2 looks fine.

I don't know what you mean by the causative in #1 but I thought tufguy had mixed up the passive form of the verb (have the check revoked) with the active (issued the check).
 

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It's a different breed of passive forms. Most textbooks I've read call it causative.

I was referring to these:

She had her hair cut.
I'm having my car fixed.
They've had their house painted.

To name but three examples commonly found in textbooks.


This looks like causative have:
The company will have the check revoked. The company will have a new one issued. The company will have the check revoked and a new one issued.

This looks like future perfect:
The company will have revoked the check. The company will have issued a new one. The company will have revoked the check and issued a new one.

This is what tufguy's written, and it doesn't look right to me because it mixes up two different constructions, but maybe I'm wrong and it's fine, just subjectively ugly:
The company will have the check revoked. The company will have issued a new one. The company will have the check revoked and issued a new one.
 
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emsr2d2

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For info, in BrE, we "cancel a cheque". The only person who can cancel a cheque is the person who wrote it (via their bank).
 

Rover_KE

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For info, in BrE, we "cancel a cheque".
Or, we stop a cheque.

to notify a bank to refuse payment of (a cheque) upon presentation: He stopped payment on the cheque because the merchandise was broken.
(Collins)
Doing so, of course, incurs a substantial fee.
 

GoesStation

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In the United States, only the bank can cancel a check. It does so when it pays it. The customer can stop payment, which instructs the bank not to pay it when it's submitted.
 

tufguy

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For info, in BrE, we "cancel a cheque". The only person who can cancel a cheque is the person who wrote it (via their bank).

We can say "I will have something done" meaning I will ask someone else to do it or I will have them do it. Am I correct?
 

probus

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In the United States, only the bank can cancel a check. It does so when it pays it. The customer can stop payment, which instructs the bank not to pay it when it's submitted.

It's the same in Canada.
 

tufguy

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It's the same in Canada.

We can say "I will have something done" meaning I will ask someone else to do it or I will have them do it. Am I correct?
 

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We can say "I will have something done" meaning "I will ask someone else to do it" or "I will have them do it". Am I correct?

It does not discount you yourself doing it.
 

Charlie Bernstein

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1) The company will void the check and issue[STRIKE]d[/STRIKE] a new one.

2) They have voided the check and issued a new one.

You can also say: "It has voided . . . ."


We don't have to use "have a new one issued" (first sentence) and "have issued" (second sentence) in the second part of these sentences. We can simply use the past participle. Am I correct? I did ask you this question earlier, but at that time I couldn't come up with a better example. But this one I think is going to clear my doubt.
Both "have a new one issued" and "issue a new one" are correct.

Shorter is better: more clear and more natural.
 

tufguy

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Both "have a new one issued" and "issue a new one" are correct.

Shorter is better: more clear and more natural.

Okay, so "will have done something" is not incorrect but shorter is better "will do something". Am I correct?
 

Charlie Bernstein

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Okay, so "will have done something" is not incorrect but shorter is better "will do something". Am I correct?
It depends on the context. Sometimes will have is better. Examples:

- I haven't washed the dishes yet, but I will have done them by the time you get home.

- They will have finished painting the house before we move in.
 

tufguy

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It depends on the context. Sometimes will have is better. Examples:

- I haven't washed the dishes yet, but I will have done them by the time you get home.

- They will have finished painting the house before we move in.

I want to say "I will have something done by my subordinate". I am not the one who will do that but I will have it done by my subordinate. I will have him do it. Is it incorrect?
 

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I want to say "I will have something done by my subordinate". I am not the one who will do that but I will have it done by my subordinate. I will have him do it. Is it incorrect?
No, that's fine.
 

Charlie Bernstein

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But "by my staff" is more natural.
 

emsr2d2

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"I'll have them done by tomorrow", for example, is ambiguous. It simply means you will make sure they're done by tomorrow. You might do them yourself. You might get someone else to do them.
 
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