[Grammar] to have or having

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Laudator

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Nov 30, 2016
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Chinese
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Malaysia
Everyone seems really happy to have / having him back. (He has already come back.)

Which one should I use, to have or having, and why?
 
I would use 'to have', a to-infinitive.
 
If you change the word order, it would be possible to use "having".

Having him back made everyone happy.
 
Thank you. But why is that? Grammatical or simply conventional?
 
Everyone seems really happy having him back.

I think "having him back" implies something on-going, which does not suit the context. It is a one-off happening.
The gerund works in other contexts but not this.
 
I think 'having' is a present participle rather than a gerund in the above post.

Thank you. But why is that? Grammatical or simply conventional?
I consider 'adjective + to + gerund' ungrammatical with some exceptions like 'be accustomed/used to doing something'.
 
I think 'having' is a present participle rather than a gerund in the above post.


I consider 'adjective + to + gerund' ungrammatical with some exceptions like 'be accustomed/used to doing something'.

Yeah, I know. What I meant was to replace "to have" as a whole by "having", not simply "have". tedmc has already answered my question, but thank you anyway.
 
OK, that was a participle.
"Everyone seems really happy working." - looks fine to me.
 
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