Which is correct ?

[R3za]

Hi everyone.
I have a question :
Which one is correct in AmE ? and why ?

a. It's against the law to make children work.
b. It's against the law to make children to work.

Thank you.

 

[emsr2d2]

Re: Whic is correct ?

Please check the member information in your profile, particularly your "Current Location".

 

[R3za]

Re: Whic is correct ?

Why ?
-----------
Why my topics need to accept by a moderator, recently ?

 

[Tdol]

Re: Whic is correct ?

Something about a post has triggered the software security. As posts are approved, it will go away.

 

[emsr2d2]

There are native speakers and learners from all over the world here. I doubt the word "law" had anything to do with moderation.

I was referring to the fact that your member profile says you are in Iran but your IP address gives a completely different country as your current location.

 

[Barb_D]

The version with "to" is incorrect.

 

[Rover_KE]

R3za, for the second time, please note that a better title would have been to make children (to) work.

Extract from the Posting Guidelines:

'Thread titles should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.'

 

[MikeNewYork]

We usually use the bare infinitive after "make someone".

 

[R3za]

We usually use the bare infinitive after "make someone".

Thanks.
When do you use infinitive after "make someone" ?

- Give me some examples with infinitive after "make someone".

- Give me some examples with bare infinitive after "make someone", too.

 

[Matthew Wai]

'I made him do the dishes before he could watch TV. = I required him to wash the dishes before he was allowed to watch TV.
I made him to do the dishes = I created him for the purpose of washing dishes. (I built this robot, who I think of as male, to wash the dishes.)'
── quoted from Barb_D in this post.

 

[Barb_D]

That was clever of me. I wish I remember writing it.
I hope you realize how utterly unlikely "I made him to do something" is.

 

[engee30]

It's one of those peculiar things about English grammar:

you make somebody do something
but
somebody is made to do something

vs

you get somebody to do something
but with this verb you can't normally express the same meaning in the passive:
somebody is got(ten) to do something

 

[Matthew Wai]

I hope you realize how utterly unlikely "I made him to do something" is.

Is the one below less unlikely?
'The scarecrow looks like a man. I made him to scare birds away.'
Not a teacher.

 

[emsr2d2]

That's perfectly acceptable but it has a totally different meaning.

I made him = I created him
to scare birds away = in order to scare birds away

It has no connection to "I made him do something" meaning "I forced him to do something".