"... Jesus loved said ..."

[Odessa Dawn]

John 21​

[SUP]7[/SUP] Then the disciple Jesus loved said to Peter, "It's the Lord!" When Simon Peter heard that it was the Lord, he put on his tunic (for he had stripped for work), jumped into the water, and headed to shore.

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If you kept it the way it was, I'd put a comma after 'came':
"He came, driven by an immense love, to suffer for us."
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/188471-he-came-driven.html

Believe me that it took me hours just to understand the underlined part. I thought that "Jesus loved said" was a mistake. Please look how I did read it. I started reading it from the word Jesus. As a result, I misunderstood the whole statement. Then I checked one of my threads and found that SlickVic9000 already explained that to me.

Shouldn’t "Jesus loved" be set off by commas?

EX: "Then the disciple, Jesus loved, said to Peter, ..."

Thank you, and you can't imagine how happy I am, thanks to your help.

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[5jj]

Shouldn’t "Jesus loved" be set off by commas?

No, "Then the disciple who(m) Jesus loved said to Peter, ..."

We do not put commas round a defining relative clause, We do round a non-defining clause:

"Then Peter, who(m) Jesus loved, said to Mark ..."

 

[BobK]

:up: Besides, given the context, 'the disciple Jesus loved' is always defining; it's code for 'John'.

b

 

[Tdol]

"Then the disciple who(m) Jesus loved said to Peter, ..."

Or that

 

[konungursvia]

Though we do see commas used for that purpose in the past, for example in Jane Austen.

 

[probus]

To amplify on bobk's remark: throughout his writing John never refers to himself by name. He always uses the phrase 'the disciple Jesus loved' to refer to himself.