I’m kind of confused because my single question has caused a big discussion. (At least it’s been a big discussion to me.)
Japanese has a women’s language and a men’s language although they have gotten neutralized year by year, and that’s made me come up with the question. When you hear or read Japanese conversations, you can tell which person is a woman and a man. (There are exceptions as well.)
There is also a kind of neutral language and it is often used in business scene. I myself try not to use womanly words when I work because I THINK they sound kind of emotional and subjective and I don’t feel them appropriate.
Besides, when a male friend of mine stayed in the U.S., he didn’t have knowledge and started sharing an apartment with a gay classmate. My friend said that the friend had looked gay, but he thought that was one of the roommate’s traits. One day, the roommate came into my friend’s bed and he jumped out of bed and ran off the apartment. Do you still think my friend was too naïve? I think if only he knew how gay people speak at that time. Then he might not have thought of sharing.
I feel to know some sort of tendency, like I’ve been asking, is not a bad thing and it doesn’t encourage the prejudice against any sexuality.
Anyway, I understand many of English native speakers don’t think that men’s heavy use of “I’d love to” bother you at all.
I hope you all understand my English. It took me a whole night to write these sentences. Whew!
Thank you SO much, dear.