[General] the verb ‘to be’

[kadioguy]

In the Macmillan English Dictionary, it says:

it pronoun
used with the verb ‘to be’ for emphasizing that you are referring to a particular person, thing, time, or place
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Why not just say the verb ‘be’?

What does 'to' here mean?

If I say just the verb ‘be’, is it correct?

 

[bubbha]

Traditionally, when we discuss the grammar or usage of a verb, we refer to it by its full infinitive form (preceded by "to"), rather than the bare infinitive form. It's not incorrect to refer to the verb by its bare infinitive form, however.

"to" in this context doesn't have any meaning; instead, it has a grammatical function. It is the infinitive marker.

 

[emsr2d2]

When I was teaching in Spain, I noticed that my students who were also attending formal classes (at school or otherwise), were being given verb lists without "to". I taught (and still teach) the infinitive form as "to + verb". If I refer to "the infinitive", that's what I mean. If I want the student to omit "to", I refer to it as the "bare infinitive".

 

[kadioguy]

When I was teaching in Spain, I noticed that my students who were also attending formal classes (at school or otherwise), were being given verb lists without "to".

Like this

I taught (and still teach) the infinitive form as "to + verb".

Like this

 

[emsr2d2]

Exactly like that.

Slightly off-topic but I also noticed that my 8-year-old student's text book gave only "have got" as the main verb of possession with no mention of "have". (There was no mention of "to" in his verb lists either.)

 

[Tdol]

They use just be, but it is so common to talk of an infinitive as to + verb that many dictionary users expect it.

 

[SoothingDave]

"To be" or not "to be?" That is the question.